
This is a classic two-machine scheduling problem solved using Johnson's Rule. The rule states: (1) If the milling time<polishing time, schedule early. (2) If the polishing time<milling time, schedule late. We now classify the parts:
Early group (Milling<Polishing):
P3 (3<4), P4 (4<6), P5 (5<7), P7 (2<1? No), P2 (3<2? No), P6 (6<4? No), P1 (8<6? No).
Late group (Polishing<Milling):
P1, P2, P6, P7.
Ordering early group in increasing milling time gives: P3 (3), P4 (4), P5 (5).
Ordering late group in decreasing polishing time gives: P1 (6), P6 (4), P3 (4), P2 (2), P7 (1). But P3 is already used, so late group = P1, P6, P2, P7.
Thus final Johnson order: \[ P3,\, P4,\, P5,\, P1,\, P6,\, P2,\, P7. \] Now compute the makespan:
Milling (Machine 1) times accumulate: 3, 7, 12, 20, 26, 29, 31.
Polishing (Machine 2) starts only after both Milling and its own completion allow it: Starts at 3 (finishes 7), then 11, 18, 26, 30, 32, and last finishing time is 33 hours.
Final Answer: 33 hours
Consider two identical tanks with a bottom hole of diameter \( d \). One tank is filled with water and the other tank is filled with engine oil. The height of the fluid column \( h \) is the same in both cases. The fluid exit velocity in the two tanks are \( V_1 \) and \( V_2 \). Neglecting all losses, which one of the following options is correct?
