\[ f(x) = \begin{cases} x^3 \sin x, & \text{if } x = 0 \text{ or } x \text{ is irrational}, \\ \frac{1}{q^3}, & \text{if } x = \frac{p}{q},\; p \in \mathbb{Z} \setminus \{0\},\; q \in \mathbb{N},\; \text{and } \gcd(p,q) = 1, \end{cases} \]
where \( \mathbb{R} \) denotes the set of all real numbers, \( \mathbb{Z} \) denotes the set of all integers, \( \mathbb{N} \) denotes the set of all positive integers, and \( \gcd(p,q) \) denotes the greatest common divisor of \( p \) and \( q \). Then which one of the following statements is true?We are given a piecewise function defined differently for rational and irrational values of \( x \). The value of \( f(x) \) for rationals is \( \frac{1}{q^3} \), which is discontinuous at 0 because the values approach 0 as \( x \) approaches 0. However, for irrational numbers or \( x = 0 \), the function behaves like \( x^3 \sin x \), which is continuous at 0.
Step 1: Continuity at 0.
The function is continuous at 0, because the limit as \( x \to 0 \) for irrational values matches the value of the function at \( x = 0 \), which is \( 0^3 \sin 0 = 0 \). Hence, the function is continuous at 0.
Step 2: Differentiability at 0.
The derivative of \( f(x) \) at \( x = 0 \) is found using the definition of the derivative: \[ f'(0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(h) - f(0)}{h}. \] For rational values near 0, \( f(h) = \frac{1}{q^3} \) approaches 0 as \( h \to 0 \), and for irrational values, \( f(h) = h^3 \sin h \). Since both approach 0 as \( h \to 0 \), the derivative at 0 is \( 0 \). Final Answer: \[ \boxed{\text{(C) } f \text{ is differentiable at 0 and the derivative of } f \text{ at 0 equals 0}}. \]
Let $\alpha,\beta\in\mathbb{R}$ be such that the function \[ f(x)= \begin{cases} 2\alpha(x^2-2)+2\beta x, & x<1 \\ (\alpha+3)x+(\alpha-\beta), & x\ge1 \end{cases} \] is differentiable at all $x\in\mathbb{R}$. Then $34(\alpha+\beta)$ is equal to}