Question:

Let 𝑋 ∼ π‘ˆπ‘›π‘–π‘“π‘œπ‘Ÿπ‘š 8, 20) and 𝑍 ∼ π‘ˆπ‘›π‘–π‘“π‘œπ‘Ÿπ‘š(0, 6) be independent random variables. Let π‘Œ = 𝑋 + 𝑍 and π‘Š = 𝑋 βˆ’ 𝑍. Then πΆπ‘œπ‘£(π‘Œ, π‘Š) is ______ (in integer).

Updated On: Nov 18, 2025
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Correct Answer: 9

Solution and Explanation

To find: \(\text{Cov}(Y, W)\) 

Given: - \(X \sim Uniform(8,20)\) - \(Z \sim Uniform(0,6)\) - \(X\) and \(Z\) are independent - \(Y = X + Z\) - \(W = X - Z\) We use the covariance formula: \[ \text{Cov}(Y,W) = \text{Cov}(X+Z,\, X-Z) \] Expand using linearity of covariance: \[ \text{Cov}(Y,W)=\text{Cov}(X,X) - \text{Cov}(X,Z) + \text{Cov}(Z,X) - \text{Cov}(Z,Z) \] Since \(X\) and \(Z\) are independent: \[ \text{Cov}(X,Z)=0,\quad \text{Cov}(Z,X)=0 \] So: \[ \text{Cov}(Y,W) = \text{Var}(X) - \text{Var}(Z) \] For a uniform distribution on \([a,b]\): \[ \text{Var}(U) = \frac{(b - a)^2}{12} \] Compute each variance: Variance of X: \[ \text{Var}(X)= \frac{(20 - 8)^2}{12} = \frac{12^2}{12} = \frac{144}{12} = 12 \] Variance of Z: \[ \text{Var}(Z)= \frac{(6 - 0)^2}{12} = \frac{36}{12} = 3 \] Finally: \[ \text{Cov}(Y,W) = 12 - 3 = 9 \]

Final Answer: \(\boxed{9}\)

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