In pure orthogonal turning by a zero rake angle single point carbide cutting tool, the shear force has been computed to be 400 N. The cutting velocity, \( V_c = 100 \ \text{m/min} \), depth of cut, \( t = 2.0 \ \text{mm} \), feed, \( s_0 = 0.1 \ \text{mm/revolution} \) and chip velocity, \( V_f = 20 \ \text{m/min} \), the shear strength \( \tau_s \) of the material will be \(\underline{\hspace{2cm}}\) MPa (round off to two decimal places).
Step 1: Calculate the Chip Thickness Ratio
The chip thickness ratio is:
$$r = \frac{t}{t_c}$$
where $t_c$ is the chip thickness.
Using the velocity relationship:
$$r = \frac{V_f}{V_c} = \frac{20}{100} = 0.2$$
Step 2: Calculate the Chip Thickness
$$t_c = \frac{t}{r} = \frac{2.0}{0.2} = 10 \text{ mm}$$
Step 3: Calculate the Shear Angle
For zero rake angle ($\alpha = 0°$), using the relationship:
$$\tan \phi = \frac{r \cos \alpha}{1 - r \sin \alpha} = \frac{r}{1} = 0.2$$
$$\phi = \tan^{-1}(0.2) = 11.31°$$
Step 4: Calculate the Shear Area
The shear area is:
$$A_s = \frac{t \times s_0}{\sin \phi}$$
$$A_s = \frac{2.0 \times 0.1}{\sin(11.31°)}$$
$$A_s = \frac{0.2}{0.196} = 1.020 \text{ mm}^2$$
Step 5: Calculate the Shear Strength
The shear strength is:
$$\tau_s = \frac{F_s}{A_s}$$
$$\tau_s = \frac{400}{1.020} = 392.16 \text{ N/mm}^2$$
$$\tau_s = 392.16 \text{ MPa}$$
Answer: The shear strength of the material is 392.16 MPa.

A surface grinding operation has been performed on a Cast Iron plate having dimensions 300 mm (length) \( \times \) 10 mm (width) \( \times \) 50 mm (height). The grinding was performed using an alumina wheel having a wheel diameter of 150 mm and wheel width of 12 mm. The grinding velocity used is 40 m/s, table speed is 5 m/min, depth of cut per pass is 50 μm and the number of grinding passes is 20. The average tangential and average normal force for each pass is found to be 40 N and 60 N respectively. The value of the specific grinding energy under the aforesaid grinding conditions is \(\underline{\hspace{2cm}}\) J/mm3 (round off to one decimal place).
Consider two identical tanks with a bottom hole of diameter \( d \). One tank is filled with water and the other tank is filled with engine oil. The height of the fluid column \( h \) is the same in both cases. The fluid exit velocity in the two tanks are \( V_1 \) and \( V_2 \). Neglecting all losses, which one of the following options is correct?
