The given integral can be evaluated using logarithmic properties and integration techniques.
We rewrite the logarithmic term: \[ \log \left( \frac{1}{x - 1} \right) = - \log(x - 1) \] Thus, the integral becomes: \[ \int_0^1 \log \left( \frac{1}{x - 1} \right) dx = - \int_0^1 \log(x - 1) \, dx \] The integral of \( \log(x - 1) \) from 0 to 1 gives 0, as the value of the integral at these limits cancels out due to symmetry.
Thus, the final answer is 0.
The figures I, II, and III are parts of a sequence. Which one of the following options comes next in the sequence at IV?