Question

A patient presented with chronic knee pain but has no history of trauma. Identify the condition shown in the radiograph below and the appropriate management.

• A. Patellar avulsion fracture, TBW
• B. Bipartite fracture patella, X-ray of other knees
• C. Fracture of the upper pole of the patella, Cylindrica cast
• D. Avulsion fracture, interfragmentary screw fixation

Answer 1

The Correct Option is B

The patient's chronic knee pain without a history of trauma suggests a non-traumatic condition affecting the patella. Among the options, the most fitting diagnosis is a bipartite patella, a condition where the patella remains in two or more pieces due to a failure of the bone to fully fuse during development. This condition is often asymptomatic but can sometimes cause pain, typically exacerbated by physical activity.

The best management strategy involves confirming the diagnosis with an X-ray of the contralateral knee. Bipartite patella is usually bilateral, so imaging the other knee can help distinguish this condition from a fracture, which would likely not present in the contralateral knee. Therefore, ordering an X-ray of the other knee is the appropriate next step.

Based on these insights, the correct option is: Bipartite fracture patella, X-ray of other knees.