A 40-year-old female patient complains of a persistent headache. A CT scan of the head was performed, as shown below. What is the most accurate diagnosis?
A 40-year-old female patient's CT scan shows visible signs of bleeding in the subarachnoid space, which indicate subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Here is a step-by-step analysis for identifying and confirming the diagnosis:
The answer is Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Immediate neuroimaging and expert consultation are crucial for appropriate management and treatment of SAH.
A 45-year-old patient presents with ptosis and muscle weakness that improves with rest. She also complains of dysphagia and has engorged veins in her thorax. Based on the CT scan image provided, what is the most likely diagnosis?
The primary source of energy for Earth’s climate system is:
The most common site of metastasis for breast cancer is:
Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for the motor innervation of the muscles of mastication?
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Parkinson’s disease?
Which enzyme is deficient in Gaucher’s disease?