Question

A 38-year-old patient with hypopigmented nodular lesions with anesthesia overarm with ulnar nerve involvement underwent a biopsy and intradermal antigen test. Based on the image, which statement regarding the condition is most accurate? 

• A. Tuberculoid leprosy with a positive antigen test
• B. Lepromatous leprosy with a positive antigen test
• C. Erythema nodosum leprosum with a negative antigen test
• D. Lepromatous leprosy with a negative antigen test

Hint:

In cases of lepromatous leprosy, look for nerve involvement and skin lesions. A negative antigen test helps distinguish this from other types of leprosy.

Answer 1

The Correct Option is D

The image demonstrates histopathological findings characteristic of lepromatous leprosy, which is typically associated with a negative antigen test. The patient’s hypopigmented nodular lesions, along with anesthesia over the affected areas, particularly involving the ulnar nerve, support this diagnosis. Lepromatous leprosy often shows widespread nerve involvement and presents with multiple skin lesions.