List of top Legal Studies Questions

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Citizenship (Amendment) Act 2019?
I. The Act does not apply to tribal areas of Tripura, Mizoram, Assam and Meghalaya but apply to all other states and UTs in India.
II. The Act provides that that no order of cancellation of registration shall be passed unless the Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.
III. The Act increases the period of naturalisation for such group of persons from six years to eight years.
IV. The Act applies to those who were "forced or compelled to seek shelter in India due to persecution on the ground of religion". It aims to protect such people from proceedings of illegal migration.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding preventive detention?
I. National Security Act as well as Article 22, Constitution of India provide for preventive detention in certain cases
II. Maximum duration in case of preventive detention can be till 12 months
III. In case of preventive detention, accused has the right to be informed about the grounds of arrest at the time of arrest.
IV. In case of preventive detention, accused has no right to be represented by a lawyer.

The Citizenship (Amendment) Act grants citizenship to the Hindus, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhist, Jains and Parsis - from_______who had arrived in India before______

Which of the following countries joined the International Criminal Court (ICC) in 2019?

Which of the following countries have abolished flogging as a form of punishment in April 2020?

Recently, the Supreme Court of India has held that women officers are also entitled to Permanent Commission in______

Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 provides for which of the following powers to prevent the spread of an epidemic disease?
I. Inspection of person
II. detention of persons
III. penalties for disobeying provisions of the Act under Section 188, 269 & 271 Indian Penal Code
IV. legal protection of implementing officers

Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Adaptation of State Laws) Second Order 2020 under J&K Civil Services (Decentralization and Recruitment) Act provides for which of the following:
I. Anyone who has lived in the Union Territory of J&K for at least 10 years is a domicile.
II. Anyone who has studied there for at least seven years and appeared in Class X or Class XII examinations in any school in the region is a domicile.
III. Anyone who is registered as a migrant by the Relief and Rehabilitation Commissioner (Migrants) in the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir is a domicile.
IV. A domicile of the UT shall be eligible for appointment to any post with a pay scale of not more than Level-4 under the UT or any local authority within the territory.

Which of the following statements regarding Anti-defection Law is/are incorrect?
I. Grounds of disqualification on ground of defection are provided in the 10th Schedule to the Constitution.
II. If 1/3 of the members of the political party defect from it than it is not defection.
III. Decision of the Speaker regarding disqualification of a member under Anti- Defection Law cannot be challenged in a court of law.
IV.A legislator is deemed to have defected if he disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020?
I. The Ordinance seeks to increase competition in the agriculture sector and enhance farmers' income.
II. The Ordinance requires that imposition of any stock limit on certain specified items must be based on price rise.
III. The provisions of the Ordinance regarding the regulation of food items and the imposition of stock limits will apply to any government order relating to the Public Distribution System or the Targeted Public Distribution System.
IV. Recently, sanitizers, masks and oxygen cylinders are included under the Act till June 30, 2020.

In February 2020, the Supreme Court has held that reservations in promotion, in government jobs, is not a fundamental right and refused to give directions to provide reservations to the government of which of the following States?

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendments Act?

The strength of Judges in Supreme Court of India has been increased from 31 to______

In September 2019, High Court of______has held that the right to have access to the internet is part of fundamental right to education and right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Delimitation Commission?
I. It determines the number and boundaries of constituencies to make population of all constituencies nearly equal.
II. The orders of Delimitation Commission have the force of law and can be challenged in a court of law.
III.Constitution of India has put a freeze on fresh delimitation until 2025.
IV.The constitution has also capped the number of Lok Shaba & Rajya Sabha seats to a maximum of 550 & 250 respectively

The Enemy Property Act applies to the property of which of the following?

Legal Principles:
1. A contract can become void when: It is unfairly one-sided; it goes against public policy; its subject matter is illegal; it is impossible to perform; it unfairly restricts one side's actions (such as the right to work); one of the parties is not legally competent to enter into a binding contract.
2. A contract is void as against public policy if: (1) it is a contract by the defendant to pay the plaintiff for inducing a public official to act in a certain manner; (2) it is a contract to do an illegal act; or (3) it is a contract that contemplates collusive bidding on a public contract.
Facts: BR Industries, a company manufacturing drills, machine parts and components thereof and a purchaser of subcontract work from other suppliers, won the bid from the HLK Company to supply certain parts to it at a specified price. BR industries then contracted with SU Co. to supply the parts under the contract for a much lower price. BR Industries then intended to keep the difference between the amount it billed the HLK Company and the amount SU Co. charged for the parts. BR Industries initiated an action for breach of contract when SU Co. failed to complete the order. In its defense, SU Co. asserts that the contract is void as against public policy because Defendant turned a profit of 84.09% on anvils, 39.13% on holder primers and 68.33% on plunger supports. Did plaintiff receive too much compensation deeming it unconscionable and against public policy?

Legal Principles:
1. Offer is a proposal made by one person to another to do an act or abstain from doing it. The person who makes the offer is known as the promisor or offeror and the person to whom an offer is made is known as the promisee or the offeree.
2. A contract comes into being by the acceptance of an offer. When the person to whom the offer is made signifies his consent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted and the parties are at consensus ad idem regarding the terms of the agreement.
Facts: In Dec. 2019, a convicted murderer who was sentenced to death escaped from the custody of Ramesh, a prison official. Ramesh later offered a reward of INR 50,000 to anyone who captured the fugitive and returned him to the authorities. In Jan. 2020, without knowledge or notice of the reward, Sunil captured the fugitive and took him to Ramesh's jail house. Ramesh refused Sunil's demands for the reward money. Sunil filed a case against Ramesh to recover the reward. Ramesh alleges that there is no contract between Ramesh and Sunil.

Which of the following States have passed a Bill providing for life imprisonment and fine up to INR 5 Lakhs against accused in case of mob lynching leading to death of the victim?

Legal principle: A contract may, in some circumstances, be discharged by a breach of contract. Where there exists a breach of condition this will enable the innocent party the right to repudiate the contract (bring the contract to an end) in addition to claiming damages.
Facts: In April, Sagar Tour & Travels agreed to employ Hiten as his courier for three months from 1 June 2020, to go on a trip around the European continent. On 11 May, Sagar Tour & Travels wrote to say that Hiten was no longer needed. On 22 May, Hiten sued Sagar Tour & Travels for breach of contract. Sagar Tour & Travels argued that Hiten was still under an obligation to stay ready and willing to perform till the day when performance was due, and therefore could commence no action before June 1, 2020.

Legal Principle: An agreement between two private parties that creates mutual legal obligations. A contract can be either oral or written.
Facts: Mr. Ram and Mr. Rahim were work colleagues who had an arrangement regarding shared lifts to work. Rahim would drive his motorbike and Ram would ride pillion in return for a weekly sum of money. Unfortunately both were killed in a road traffic accident and the wife of Mr. Ram made a claim for damages against the estate of Mr. Rahim. However Rahim's insurance policy did not cover pillion passengers and as his estate had no assets or money to satisfy the judgment, Mrs. Ram pursued the Motor Insurance Bureau (MIB).
The MIB have an agreement whereby accidents and consequential claims would be satisfied by the Government in circumstances where the driver has no relevant policy of insurance. However the rules covering this situation require Mr. Ram was carried for "hire or reward". Mrs. Ram argues that there was a contract in place between Ram and Rahim for the lifts to work. Decide whether there was a contract so as to make Mrs. Ram eligible for claim from MIB.

Legal Principles:
1. Offer is a proposal made by one person to another to do an act or abstain from doing it. The person who makes the offer is known as the promisor or offeror and the person to whom an offer is made is known as the promisee or the offeree.
2. A contract comes into being by the acceptance of an offer. When the person to whom the offer is made signifies his consent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted and the parties are at consensus ad idem regarding the terms of the agreement.
Facts: Mr. Kumar visited the Holiday Bliss Hotel. He had not made an in advance booking and upon arrival requested a room for the night. He signed the register and there was no mention at that stage of any other terms or conditions that might impact upon his stay at the hotel. During the course of his stay Mr. Kumar discovered that someone had broken into his room and stolen certain property including a coat. Kumar filed a case of negligence on the Hotel administration. Nevertheless, the Hotel sought to rely upon an exclusion clause that was placed in the bedroom the claimant stayed in. This stated that the hotel would not accept liability for lost or stolen items belonging to customers. Decide whether the exclusion clause that was displayed in the bedroom constituted a valid term of the contract.

Legal Principles:
1. When one person signify to another person his willingness to do or not do something (abstain) with a view to obtain the assent of such person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal or an offer.
2. The communication of the offer is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.
3. Communication of acceptance is complete when it is put in the course of transmission to him as to be out of the power of the acceptor to withdraw the same and when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
4. In case of the proposer, the communication of the acceptance is complete when he puts such acceptance in the course of transmission.
5. The communication in case of the acceptor is complete when the proposer acquires knowledge of such acceptance.
6. An offer may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards.
Facts: G offered to sell the L fleeces of wool for a certain price. G requested that the response be made by post. This letter was misdirected by G so that it was not received for 3 days after it was sent. L decided to accept the offer and responded on the same day. This was posted on the 5th July but not received until the 9th July. However, G decided on the 8th July that as he had not received a response so decided to sell the wool to someone else. But L argued that a contract had been created as he had accepted their offer. Decide.

Legal Principles:
1. In order to convert a proposal into a promise the acceptance must be absolute and unqualified.
2. Acceptance must be expressed in some usual and reasonable manner, unless the proposal prescribes the manner in which it is to be accepted. If the proposal prescribes a manner in which it is to be accepted, and the acceptance is not made in such manner, the proposer may, within a reasonable time after the acceptance is communicated to him, insist that his proposal shall be accepted in the prescribed manner, and not otherwise; but, if he fails to do so, he accepts the acceptance.
Facts: TUV's employee performing installation on Motorola's premises was injured due to the negligence of Motorola employees. TUV had executed a purchase order that contained an indemnity form. First purchase order contained indemnity provision which narrowly applied to damages caused by the negligence of TUV's employees. It attached a broader indemnity form page which would make TUV also responsible for the negligence of Motorola employees in connection with the work. This page was marked VOID. Amendment 2 to Purchase order contained same provision and attached same additional indemnity form which this time was not marked VOID. But also contained the additional language that "acceptance should be executed on acknowledgement copy which should be returned to the buyer." Employce was injured several months before the acknowledgement copy of the second purchase order was executed, but was in the course of performing work related to the second purchase order. Decide whether TUV liable under the broader indemnity provision.

Legal Principles:
1. When the negligent act of two or more person results in the same damage, it is called composite negligence. The liability in such a case is joint and several of the tort-feasers.
2. A person is liable if he can reasonably foresee that his acts would be likely to injure someone.
3. The foreseeability of the type of damage is a pre-requisite of liability.
4. The claimant must prove that harm would not have occurred but for the negligence of the defendant.
Facts: Zara filed a civil suit against five drug manufacturing companies. Zara's mother took synthetic estrogen while pregnant with her. As a result of receiving the drug in-utero, Zara developed cancer as an adult. The drug was manufactured by the Defendants, five major drug companies and by about 195 other companies not named in the suit. The Defendants together produced 90% of the drug. Zara is unable to identify which company produced the actual drug her mother took. Decide whether the Defendants only can be held liable for Zara's cancer.