Question

Over the last 40 years there has been a great increase not only in the number of
agricultural pesticides in use but also in the care and sophistication with which
they are used by farmers. Nevertheless, the proportion of agricultural crops lost
to certain pests worldwide has increased over the same period, even when the
pests concerned have not developed resistance to existing pesticides. Which of the following, if true, best explains how improvements in pesticide use
have been accompanied by greater losses to certain pests?

• A. \( \text{Some ineffective old pesticides are no longer used.} \)
• B. \( \text{Pest-specific pesticides cost more than crop loss value.} \)
• C. \( \text{Today's farmers observe fields more closely.} \)
• D. \( \text{Some non-chemical methods are as effective.} \)
• E. \( \text{Less was known about pesticide effects 40 years ago.} \)

Hint:

Look for a cost-benefit explanation.

Answer 1

The Correct Option is B

Step 1: Argument: Better pesticide use increased, but crop losses rose.
Step 2: Needs reason why losses persist despite improvements.
Step 3: (B) explains losses due to high control costs outweighing loss value.
Step 4: Others (A, C, D, E) don’t address loss increase directly.