Question:

A shopkeeper sold a TV set for Rs. 17,940, with a discount of 8\(\%\) and gained 19.6\(\%\). If no discount is allowed, then what will be his gain per cent?

Updated On: Sep 25, 2024
  • 25\(\%\)
  • 26.4\(\%\)
  • 28.4\(\%\)
  • None of these
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The Correct Option is D

Solution and Explanation

The correct option is (D): None of these
Explanation:To find the shopkeeper's gain percentage without the discount, we can follow these steps:
1. Calculate the marked price (MP):
The selling price (SP) is given as Rs. 17,940 after an 8% discount.
Using the formula for selling price after discount:
\[SP = MP \times \left(1 - \frac{d}{100}\right)\]
where \(d\) is the discount percentage.
Rearranging the formula gives:
\[MP = \frac{SP}{1 - \frac{d}{100}} = \frac{17940}{1 - 0.08} = \frac{17940}{0.92} = 19500\]
2. Calculate the cost price (CP):
Given that the gain is 19.6%, we can find the cost price using the relationship:
\[SP = CP \times \left(1 + \frac{g}{100}\right)\]
where \(g\) is the gain percentage.
Rearranging the formula gives:
\[CP = \frac{SP}{1 + \frac{g}{100}} = \frac{17940}{1 + 0.196} = \frac{17940}{1.196} \approx 14980\]
3. Calculate the gain when no discount is allowed:
If no discount is allowed, the selling price is equal to the marked price (Rs. 19,500). The gain in this case would be:
\[\text{Gain} = MP - CP = 19500 - 14980 = 4500\]
4. Calculate the gain percentage:
Now, we can find the gain percentage using the formula:
\[\text{Gain percentage} = \left(\frac{\text{Gain}}{CP}\right) \times 100 = \left(\frac{4500}{14980}\right) \times 100 \approx 30.05\%\]
Therefore, the Correct  answer is Option D: None of these.
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